Father dead but children given his name???

[Guest]

Have an odd situation a man died in 1902 his wife goes on to have two more children one in 1912 the other in 1914 which she gives the Dead Fathers surname? how is this possible?
Thanks.

[chrisj1961]

I've got one of those in my one name study, father dies in 1908, wife has 3 more children 1910, 1912 and 1915. In my christening records it just gives her christian name and married name - no male name given. I would imagine it is possible to do - unusual but possible.

[Guest]

Thanks Chris these did have their Births registered.
I thought the Husband had to agree if they were illigitimate ? and he couldn't if he was dead , if you get what I mean ?:conf:

[Night Owl]

Have you got the certs Val or are these entries in the birth cert register?

[Guest]

For once Jackie they aren't my problem I am helping somebody else , aren't you thrilled Cuz:Wink:
I dont know if she has the certs will have to ask her .

[Night Owl]

Hiya Cuz ;)

I was wondering because if they're just entries on the register and the widow was still using her married name but didn't give father's details, I presume the children would just be given the same surname as their mother.

The other explanation could be that she was economical with the truth so the children wouldn't be seen as illegitimate.

[Guest]

ooh yes you have a point there its a bit sensitive so cannot say too much on here, I have suggested she joins this site, she could post on the sensitive bit.

[margaretmarch]

The usual way a surname is given is that it is inferred by the name of the father if he is named at the birth registration or the mother if no father is named.

In this case she is obviously using her married name - why not she's a widow and that would be normal.

The children would be registered by her giving her name as it is but I guess there will be no father shown so her surname is what would be inferred for the child.

Margaret

[SmallTownGirl]

If the deceased father's name is on the birth certificates, it is possible that the mother took her marriage licence with her when she registered the births but accidently-on-purpose, perhaps, "forgot" to tell the registrar that her husband had died?

STG

[margaretmarch]

If the deceased father's name is on the birth certificates, it is possible that the mother took her marriage licence with her when she registered the births but accidently-on-purpose, perhaps, "forgot" to tell the registrar that her husband had died?

STG

You don't have to take your marriage cert to register a birth - if she is a married woman the child is presumed to be the husband's unless she says otherwise. If she was known to the registrar - small town etc - then maybe she would have to say father's name unknown but it would still mean the children have her surname whatever it is and however she got it. Her surname became the same as husband's when she married and his death does not change that.

Margaret

[Olde Crone Holden]

I agree with Margaret - your surname is whatever you say it is and if you are a widow you are perfectly entitled to go on using your late husband's surname.

I have been divorced for 25 years but still am known by my married surname.

Only the actual birth certs will reveal whether she said her dead husband was the father of her children, or whether there is no father named.

OC

[Guest]

that all makes sense thinking about it thanks everyone