I have a will dated 1800 which states:
'I give and devise my messuage, farm and lands with the appurtenances ... unto my brother to hold unto and to the use of him and his assigns during his life and aftger his decease I give and devise the said messuage ... unto my nephew and niece and their heirs and assigns for ever..'
NB. the nephew was aged 5 and the niece aged 9 in 1800.
Would I be right in thinking that, as the property was only 'on loan' to the brother and not technically his, there would be no need for him to mention it when he makes his will in 1814 leaving everything to his wife??
thoughts/advice welcome
Oh, just had a thought, could the brother's wife we termed 'his assign' as referred to in the original will of 1800?
'I give and devise my messuage, farm and lands with the appurtenances ... unto my brother to hold unto and to the use of him and his assigns during his life and aftger his decease I give and devise the said messuage ... unto my nephew and niece and their heirs and assigns for ever..'
NB. the nephew was aged 5 and the niece aged 9 in 1800.
Would I be right in thinking that, as the property was only 'on loan' to the brother and not technically his, there would be no need for him to mention it when he makes his will in 1814 leaving everything to his wife??
thoughts/advice welcome
Oh, just had a thought, could the brother's wife we termed 'his assign' as referred to in the original will of 1800?
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