As you will all know, my ggg grandfather, Jacob Asher, his brother & a friend, were put on trial in 1858 for robbery & attempted murder. In the newspaper account of the proceedings, it gives the name of a defence lawyer & says he "spoke for the Ashers".....in other words, he doesn't seem to have been acting for the friend. No one is specifically mentioned as acting for the friend.
Would this just be standard procedure, or does it indicate that the Ashers had some money behind them ? (they were ordinary working men). It's possible that money was provided by the Jewish community or by their father who had a established his own business by that time (not sure if he'd have been able to afford that, though)
I'd have thought that, if the state had provided someone speaking for the defence in this instance, the same person would have represented the Ashers' friend:p
Would this just be standard procedure, or does it indicate that the Ashers had some money behind them ? (they were ordinary working men). It's possible that money was provided by the Jewish community or by their father who had a established his own business by that time (not sure if he'd have been able to afford that, though)
I'd have thought that, if the state had provided someone speaking for the defence in this instance, the same person would have represented the Ashers' friend:p
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