Interested in gut feelings of people who have more experience than I do (ie everyone)
If a man (first half of the nineteenth century) had been married & had a living son (his only child by that marriage), whom he had named after his father (ie the child's grandfather) &, for whatever reason, he left his wife & entered into a bigamous marriage with another woman, would he have named a son from that second marriage after his father, too, or would his attitude have been that only one son should be named after his father ? (suspect there's no "correct" answer)
I've got a situation where a husband may have left his wife & made a bigamous marriage in those circumstances (just not sure if I've got the right man)....if it is the right man then, in the second marriage he names the children after his mother & siblings...but doesn't name any of the sons after his father...again, if I'm correct, the son from the first marriage was named after his father.
Was there any kind of usual "tradition" in these circumstances ?
Thanks
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