I don't know if you can talk about a "general attitude", so this is probably useless, but if anyone has any comments I'd be very interested.
Suppose a man in quite a high social position married someone in a lower social position (& of a different religion) & they had a child. I don't know if the child was born before the marriage or not.....but would the "shame" to his family lie in the pregnancy or the marriage or both ?....ie if the mother lived nearby & named the child after the father would that be tolerated by the wealthier family as being part of "the ways of the world", whereas they would seek to cover up the formal union represented by a marriage ?
Suppose a man in quite a high social position married someone in a lower social position (& of a different religion) & they had a child. I don't know if the child was born before the marriage or not.....but would the "shame" to his family lie in the pregnancy or the marriage or both ?....ie if the mother lived nearby & named the child after the father would that be tolerated by the wealthier family as being part of "the ways of the world", whereas they would seek to cover up the formal union represented by a marriage ?
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