The certificate is dated 1918 and the couple were married "according to the Rites and Ceremonies of the Presbyterians" by "Certificate".
2 questions please -
1. Am I right to assume that no banns, or anything equivalent, would be have been called?
2. If so, might the couple have decided to marry in a Presbyterian Church to avoid any prior publicity of the marriage?
Thanks
Hope that makes sense - Am getting inceasingly muddled!!
2 questions please -
1. Am I right to assume that no banns, or anything equivalent, would be have been called?
2. If so, might the couple have decided to marry in a Presbyterian Church to avoid any prior publicity of the marriage?
Thanks
Hope that makes sense - Am getting inceasingly muddled!!
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