Thought I'd start another thread instead of hijacking other people's.
When money or goods were left to a child on attaining the age of twenty-one, would the child/now adult get the inheritence automatically?
Would there be any records of that being paid?
When the money is given to a daughter, and her heirs or issue would it include illegitimate children of that daughter?
I've noticed in my wills the father has stipulated that
"trustees shall divide equally amongst her (meaning his daughter) issue whether legitimate or illegitimate share and share alike"
The fathers also usually stated the money was for the daughters personal use, not for their husband's.
I'm talking 1700/1800s.
When money or goods were left to a child on attaining the age of twenty-one, would the child/now adult get the inheritence automatically?
Would there be any records of that being paid?
When the money is given to a daughter, and her heirs or issue would it include illegitimate children of that daughter?
I've noticed in my wills the father has stipulated that
"trustees shall divide equally amongst her (meaning his daughter) issue whether legitimate or illegitimate share and share alike"
The fathers also usually stated the money was for the daughters personal use, not for their husband's.
I'm talking 1700/1800s.
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